by exnewyorker » Wed Jan 30, 2008 06:38 am
I was divorced several years ago but my ex-wife and I continued our joint auto insurance because it's cheaper (for her; as I have the better record) than us buying separate insurance. I'm willing to continue this arrangement to save her some money, but... Is this legal? We both live in California.
Thanks.
Thanks.
Posted: Mon Feb 04, 2008 10:47 pm Post Subject:
InsTeacher... I have no doubt that your post was informative but I did not read it all (it's been one of those days). I did not read it as I agree that I was incorrect. I read Lori's post and realized that this is the ex-wife in a different household. So no, the OP would not have any interest in the vehicle. :)
Okay, I did go back and read your entire post ('cause I knew it would be good). I'd agree that you getting a ride from someone would not allow you to have an insurable interest in that situation. You have an interest in the person _driving_ you to work (the service) not an interest in that particular vehicle. As long as you agree that you don't need to be the legal owner of a vehicle to have an "insurable interest" then we are on the same page. That is, there are times when you don't own a vehicle and still have an "insurable interest".
(I need to fix my spell checker. Obviously it's not correcting my grammar :) )
Posted: Mon Feb 04, 2008 11:15 pm Post Subject:
Hey tcope,
I have always read and enjoyed your posts; they are often informative, accurate and address the specific need of the OP (unlike certain thread...lol). However, this part here:
As long as you agree that you don't need to be the legal owner of a vehicle to have an "insurable interest" then we are on the same page. That is, there are times when you don't own a vehicle and still have an "insurable interest".
I don't know that I can agree with this. The only situation that I can come up with that may have a true, legal insurable interest would be the lien or lease holder that protects their interest; they would have an insurable interest. While I will NEVER claim to know it all, I can't think of a scenario where it would exist OUTSIDE of either ownership of an object or lien/leaseholder situations...can you provide me an example of where an insurable interest may lie in other than these scenarios?
You may be right on target...I just can't think of another possibility! :? Given that my brain's completely toast, I'm hoping you can help me out.
InsTeacher 8)
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